Soul,
re: “You’re the one who first presented a hypothetical scenario that you believed involved an ancient Jew using the idiom ‘three days and three nights’…”
I didn’t do that. I asked if an ancient Jew said he would be working one day and one night would anyone think that at least a portion of the daytime or at least a portion of the night time didn’t have to be involved? I asked because I don’t see how the logic there is any different if three days and three nights was substituted for one day and one night.
re: “In reply, I told you to put forth a hypothetical of an ancient Jew using the idiom “three days and three nights” correctly.”
Just take my hypothetical of one day and one night and substitute three days and three nights. The question would be the same.
re: “As for me, I’ve already pointed to actual examples in Scripture where the idiom ‘three days and three nights’ was used.”
But, with the possible exception of the Esther account - and that is dependent on if “three days, night or day” is the same thing as “three days and three nights” - your other three offerings do not show where at least a portion of each one of three daytimes or at least a portion of each one of three night times couldn’t be involved.
